Q: Could Sauron Command the Balrogs?
ANSWER: Well, this question as presented to me is so vaguely worded that even after mulling it over for nearly a year I am not quite sure how to answer it. Context is very important for a question like this. It would mean one thing if asked of the Sauron who served Morgoth in the First Age, and another if asked of the Sauron who purported to serve Morgoth in the Second Age, and yet something else if asked of the Sauron who claimed to be Morgoth returned in the Third Age.
So far as I know, J.R.R. Tolkien himself never really addressed this issue. He seems to imply that Melkor’s servants did not fight among themselves while he was imprisoned in Valinor. And given that Sauron was Melkor’s lieutenant it would seem reasonable to infer that he wielded at least some limited authority over them during Melkor’s absence.
Then again, Sauron doesn’t seem to have had much to do with the Balrogs. He is not mentioned as accompanying the Balrogs in any of their tasks. Gothmog was the Lord of Balrogs and also Melkor’s lieutenant. It was Gothmog, apparently, who led the army that destroyed Gondolin. But that is also an inference and a weak one based on the very difficult textual history of the story of Gondolin, for which there is no canonical narrative.
If we assume that Sauron and Gothmog were co-equal servants of Melkor then I would guess that Sauron wielded no authority over them at all. If we assume that Sauron was senior to Gothmog but given separate responsibilities then I would guess he wielded a titular authority over them but in practice never called upon them.
There Were No Balrogs in the Second Age (of the Sun)
In terms of narrative material we have nothing about Balrogs for the Second Age. We know at least one survived the destruction of Beleriand but Tolkien’s final word on the fate of the Balrogs appears to be that all but one were destroyed in the War of Wrath. The sole surviving Balrog was “sleeping” under Caradhras throughout the Second Age. Hence, it played no part in Sauron’s strategies and we have not even a hint that Sauron knew of its existence or attempted to make contact with it.
Sauron achieved his greatest personal power during the late Second Age after forging the One Ring. He became more powerful in terms of his ability to coerce others to his will than Melkor had been at the end of the First Age. But Melkor’s forces at the start of the War of Wrath were greater than Sauron’s forces at any time during the Second Age.
In a footnote to Letter No. 183 Tolkien writes of Sauron that “by the end of the Second Age he assumed the position of Morgoth’s representative. By the end of the Third Age (though actually much weaker than before) he claimed to be Morgoth returned.” From this note we can infer that Sauron was claiming to be Melkor’s vice-roy in Middle-earth at the end of the Second Age; hence, he would have been claiming any authority over surviving Balrogs.
The Balrog Slept for Two Thousand Years in the Third Age
During the first two thousand years of the Third Age Sauron did not dare to reveal himself, not even as a servant of Melkor. He simply established himself (after assuming a new body about 1050 years into the Third Age) as an independent authority in southern Greenwood the Great. He was an enigma and no one saw him as either Melkor’s lieutenant or as Melkor himself. So when did he proclaim himself to be Melkor returned?
I deduce that would only have been in the year 2951, when he returned to Mordor and “declared himself” openly. His ruse was known to the White Council because Gandalf had already discovered Sauron’s identity. As one of the Maiar Gandalf would, presumably, have been able to identify Sauron and perhaps any other leading Maiaric servants of Melkor remaining from the First Age. He did not put a name to the Balrog of Moria nor act as if he personally recognized the Balrog itself, but he recognized it for what it was and did not hesitate to name it after Legolas first announced the Balrog’s arrival.
From Gandalf’s own actions I conclude that — in my opinion — he should have been in no doubt about who Sauron was once he got close enough to recognize Sauron. And Gandalf, as one of the Maiar, may also have understood that it would have been impossible for Melkor to return to life (so soon).
So using Gandalf as a standard of measurement for the Maiar, is it reasonable to assume that the Balrog would also have known Sauron was not its old master returned? The Balrog was clearly an intelligent, rational character in the story. It acted with purpose and even strategy. Gandalf said that when he attempted to seal the door to the Chamber of Mazarbul “with a spell” the Balrog detected his intent and countered it. Gandalf had to resort to a very raw, powerful response (using what he described as a “Word of Command”) to block the entrance and prevent the Balrog (whose nature Gandalf had not yet recognized) from following the Fellowship.
I don’t think Sauron could have deceived the Balrog of Moria. Now maybe Tolkien would have written a story about an encounter or communication between Sauron and the Balrog differently. Perhaps some people would say it is plausible that Sauron could have sent emissaries to Moria to speak on his behalf, thus depriving the Balrog of any opportunity to recognize Sauron for who he was. And yet, Melkor had been able to summon the Balrogs from afar, at least when he was threatened.
I just don’t think Sauron should have been able to convincingly present himself to the Balrog of Moria as Melkor. At least not without the One Ring. Perhaps he could have done so if he recovered the Ring. Or maybe the Balrog would not have cared if Sauron had recovered the Ring.
Did the Balrog Want the Ring for Itself?
This question has divided Tolkien fans for years. If the Balrog truly did sense the One Ring and recognized it for what it was (a part of Sauron, essentially, separated from the main part of his will), then it could have deduced that Sauron was weak and vulnerable. In this scenario anyone writing fan fiction could argue that Sauron had indeed presented himself (via messenger) as Melkor returned to the Balrog and its followers, and that when the Ring came into the Balrog’s presence it deduced the truth. I think that would be a reasonable extrapolation.
In the Final Analysis: There Was No Opportunity for Sauron to Command the Balrog
Why didn’t the Balrog of Moria leave the underground fortress? Was it, too, weaker as a result of its long sojourn under the mountains? Did it fear the wrath of the Valar, who had left it alone despite its destruction of the kingdom of the Dwarves who once lived in Khazad-dum (Moria)?
So long as the Balrog remained underground it really didn’t provide Sauron with much of a strategic advantage. At best it protected Dol Guldur’s flank by threatening Lorien, or at least by preventing the Dwarves from returning and allying themselves with Lorien.
If the Balrog was unwilling or unable to leave Moria then it would have been of no real use to Sauron anyway. He would not have had a reason to try to cow or persuade the Balrog to join him.
Hence, I think it’s a moot point. There was never a time when Sauron could have capitalized on the survival of the one Balrog. They appear to have gone their separate ways and Tolkien never really explains why.
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Very good answer, though one might consider if the Balrog in question was somewhat weaker than Sauron then we could assume, or rather speculate that maybe he would be able to command one, of course if Sauron would put forth his power, maybe even going as far as he did in actual situation of forcing Saruman to do his bidding. We know that through the palantir Sauron was able to gain power over Saruman: “has been persuaded from afar, and daunted when persuasion would not serve…. How long, I wonder, has he been constrained to come often to his glass for inspection and instruction…”
“[circa] 3000
… Saruman dares to use the palantír of Orthanc, but becomes ensnared by Sauron, who has the Ithil Stone. He becomes a traitor to the Council.”
“It was only Sauron who used a Stone for the transference of his superior will, dominating the weaker surveyor and forcing him to reveal hidden thought and to submit to commands. [Author’s note.]”
“Saruman fell under the domination of Sauron and desired his victory, or no longer opposed it.”
“[It] is said that Sauron had at this time [3018], by means of the palantíri, at last begun to daunt Saruman, and could in any case often read his thought even when he withheld information. Thus Sauron was aware that Saruman had some guess at the place where the Ring was; and Saruman actually revealed that he had got as his prisoner Gandalf, who knew the most.”
“Saruman’s integrity “had been undermined by purely personal pride and lust for the domination of his own will. His study of the Rings had caused this, for his pride believed that he could use them, or It, in defiance of any other will. He, having lost any devotion to other persons or causes, was open to the domination of a superior will, to its threats, and to its display of power.”
Of course Saruman still retained his will and could plot or play with thoughts of double dealing, or betraying his master (before being ‘ensnared’ he also planned to rival Sauron). If to believe the later texts that say:
“Morgoth had corrupted many spirits – some great, as Sauron, some less so, as Balrogs.”
Then if the Balrog was weaker in power or ‘greatness of spirit’ than Sauron’s then maybe it would be possible with great effort for the Dark Lord to assume command, but it might be less likely for all the reasons you mentioned.
In the struggle between the Balrog and Gandalf in and above Moria, the Balrog was thrown down and defeated, although Gandalf was exhausted and ‘died’ as a result, receiving an upgrade from Grey to White afterwards. So if the Balrog could be defeated by Gandalf in his pre-resurrection state, it is pretty clear that it was considerably less powerful than Sauron.
I think the question begs the broader question of free will. Would the Balrog of Moria have been bound to follow anyone, including Melkor/Morgoth? Clearly, Sauron was capable of striking off on his own, and Saruman tried to follow suit. If the Ainur had been bound in allegiance to Eru, then the only explanation for all these “rebellions” is that Eru willed it all. If they were not bound in allegiance to Eru, then certainly they didn’t have to be bound in allegiance to any other leader.
What were Tolkien’s thoughts on free will? Did he make a distinction in that regard between evil characters and good? Why was it that the good could fall into evil, but the evil could (apparently) never reform?
As to the Balrog of Moria, maybe he just wanted to be alone, retreating into a Void of his own creation, waking only to evict interlopers? Assuming he had free will, perhaps he chose to retreat permanently to the sidelines?
Good analysis except I have to disagree in one key point. Leaving the Balrog in Moria might have actually played a key strategy role in Sauron’s plan. The Balrog kept the dwarves from reoccurring Moria, an essentially impregnable fortress. Denying this fortress to his enemies is a very valuable thing to him. Sauron has a history of using powerful evil beings for his own ends without directly commanding them. He uses Shelob as a guard. He also likely wanted to unleash Smaug on the north (at least according to Gandalf) even though I’m guessing he couldn’t have commanded Dmaug directly.