Q: Who Were the High Kings and What Realms Did They Rule?
ANSWER: A reader wrote in with the following observation and question:
I have noted that you repeatedly call the kings of Arnor between Valandil and Eärendur “High Kings” and imply that they had some (figurehead at least) power over Gondor, at least until the time of Tarannon of Gondor.
So I was wondering, where does the text say or imply this? I find a straight reading of the text says that only Elendil and Isildur were ever referred to as “High Kings” of Gondor and Arnor, and after that the kingship was divided between the two realms completely. This division also explains the need to re-establish communications many years down the line with Ondoher and Araphant.
This raises a question that used to vex people enough to argue back and forth for days, although I would not call it one of the “Great Debate” questions. The list of the High Kings is provided in Appendix A to The Lord of the Rings. J.R.R. Tolkien distinguished between the (High) Kings of Arnor and the Kings of Arthedain in two ways.
First, he listed them under those realm names (Arnor and Arthedain).
Arnor. Elendil †S.A. 3441, Isildur †2, Valandil 249, Eldacar 339, Arantar 435, Tarcil 515, Tarondor 602, Valandur †652, Elendur 777, Eärendur 861.
Arthedain. Amlaith of Fornost (eldest son of Eärendur) 946, Beleg 1029, Mallor 1110, Celepharn 1191, Celebrindor 1272, Malvegil 1349, Argeleb I †1356, Arveleg I 1409, Araphor 1589, Argeleb II 1670, Arvegil 1743, Arveleg II 1813, Araval 1891, Araphant 1964, Arvedui Last-king † 1974. End of the North-kingdom.
Second, as you’ll see above, the kings of Arthedain took their names in Sindarin, whereas the kings of Arnor took their names in Quenya (a fact Tolkien mentioned in one of the footnotes).
It is true that Isildur was the only other king besides Elendil who was acknowledged as a King of Gondor but the High Kingship, as it were, continued through Eärendur. This fact is established in the first sentence of the narrative section titled “The North-kingdom and the Dúnedain”:
After Elendil and Isildur there were eight High Kings of Arnor. After Eärendur, owing to dissensions among his sons their realm was divided into three: Arthedain, Rhudaur, and Cardolan. Arthedain was in the North-west and included the land between Brandywine and Lune, and also the land north of the Great Road as far as the Weather Hills. Rhudaur was in the North-east and lay between the Ettenmoors, the Weather Hills, and the Misty Mountains, but included also the Angle between the Hoarwell and the Loudwater. Cardolan was in the South, its bounds being the Brandywine, the Greyflood, and the Great Road.
The title of “High King” is, in Middle-earth, peculiar only to Tolkien’s Elvish and Dunadan cultures. We find the title nowhere else among his various cultures, although that doesn’t mean he intended it to be restricted to those cultures. It’s just that he never used the title for any other peoples.
High Kings are known from our own history, especially in the British Isles. The Irish and Scots named High Kings. The Anglo-Saxons had several Bretwaldas, who have been compared to High Kings by some historians (and many people with an interest in history).
A high king is usually named or acknowledged among several closely connected tribes, clans, or communities. They are united by language, culture, law, custom, and probably also blood. In some cultures the high king might wield considerable authority by right of conquest or careful bargaining. Agamemnon supposedly held considerable power over lesser Achaean monarchs, for example.
In Middle-earth we know about the High Kings of the Noldor-in-Exile. These were, in succession, Fingolfin, Fingon, Turgon, and Gil-galad. Gil-galad was the last of the High Kings of the Exiles. Thingol was also acknowledged as a High King but he was also Lord of Beleriand and King of Doriath. He wielded real authority over all of Beleriand, whereas the High Kings of the Exiles seemed to be more ceremonial until Gil-galad. Gil-galad also became High King of the Elves of the West. Readers don’t always agree on what that title means, but both Noldor and Sindar lived in Gil-galad’s realm and Tolkien makes it clear that some Sindar (especially Cirdan) continued to live in Lindon or other lands that acknowledged Gil-galad’s authority even after the “Sindarin adventurers” passed eastward to establish realms beyond the Misty Mountains. In this context I think Gil-galad’s title means “Elves of the West (of Middle-earth)”, not “Elves of the Uttermost West” or Valinor.
Gil-galad wielded real power over all the Elven lands in Eriador and Beleriand (of which Lindon was the last remnant). It’s not universally agreed that he wielded much power over the Noldor of Eregion, although he sent Elrond with an army to Eregion’s aid, and Elrond in turn fled north with survivors of Eregion to establish Imladris, where he became Gil-galad’s viceroy in Eriador.
Hence, before Elendil became High King of the Dunedain-in-Exile (or High King of Arnor and Gondor as some style it), Tolkien had already established some precedents for how high kingships could be recognized according to the laws and customs of the Eldar. The Numenoreans had no need for high kings prior to the establishment of the Realms in Exile.
I suspect what Tolkien may have had in mind was that Elendil and his sons, being separated, chose separately to establish realms among the Dunedain and friendly peoples in Middle-earth. Of course, they had the palantiri by which they remained in communication but their realms were initially unconnected. Over the course of the 100 years before Sauron revealed himself (by attacking Gondor) the kingdoms established the highway system that connected Osgiliath with Annuminas. Together they enlarged the city of Tharbad and established dual garrisons there.
The fact both realms maintained garrisons on their respective sides of the river seems to imply that the authority of each realm was respected by the other but not treated as subordinate. They maintained a mutual border, as it were. If Tolkien meant this to imply there were practical limits to Elendil’s power and authority he does not offer any other support for such an idea.
On the other hand, Elendil was clearly the senior commander of Dunadan forces in the War of the Last Alliance. Isildur marched with his father while Anarion defended Gondor. Hence, when push came to shove Elendil exercised the highest authority among men.
Given these few facts about Elendil and Isildur we have to ask what the implications of Isildur’s actions were when he “committed to [Meneldil] the rule of the South Kingdom” (as Boromir put it in Rivendell). Isildur literally passed his local authority as (Co-) King of Gondor to Meneldil (Anarion’s son). In Unfinished Tales of Numenor and Middle-earth Tolkien suggests in “The Disaster of the Gladden Fields” that Meneldil did not want Isildur or his sons to remain in Gondor as joint kings, but that is insufficient evidence to support much of a supposition. However, we could infer from these passages, as well as the story of Arvedui and the Council of Gondor, that Meneldil interpreted Isildur’s action as a fait accompli for all future generations: that rule of the South Kingdom was only to be exercised by the Line of Anarion. Meneldil seems to have passed this interpretation down to his heirs and their counselors.
Isildur and his heirs could have had an alternate interpretation of the situation. In Isildur’s mind he was still senior king and rightful Lord of Gondor. Meneldil’s authority descended from Isildur as well as from his father. Hence, Isildur’s heirs retained this point of view but they formally conceded use of the “High King” title when they divided Arnor into three realms. Nonetheless, Arvedui attempted to assert that point of view when he claimed the throne of Gondor. But Gondor’s council rejected that interpretation of the law, even though they simply refused to reply to Arvedui’s last communication on the matter.
For my part I acknowledge the line of the High Kings because Tolkien established that precedent. But I cannot tell you whether anyone after Isildur would have been able to intervene in Gondor’s affairs. I doubt they would have entertained such a thought after Arnor was divided into three realms. At that point I think Amlaith and his brothers knew the High Kingship had ended.
Have you read our other Tolkien and Middle-earth Questions and Answers articles?
Hi Michael.
Thank you very much for taking the time to answer my question.
Since asking the question I did find the “High King of Arnor” title. Since the title was different, I kind of thought that it was a precursor to the eventual breakup of the kingdom into three, as of the divisions already existed and then after Eärendur, both the title and the kingdom broke down with the rising tensions between the king’s domains. Not that I have any textual support for that, necessarily.
When I mentioned that it seemed you “kept referring to” the High King (of Arnor) as if he had titular power over Gondor, I admit I had just read articles like your one on the “Dúnedain Conspiracies” and the breakup of Arnor, where you state a number of times about how Tarannon had changed the balance of power and therefore (informally) had challenged the power of the High King.
If the High Kings were only High Kings over Arnor, as their Tolkien-given title of “High Kings of Arnor” seems to imply, then why would they be worried about a challenge to their power from Gondor? Besides the military threat of an external power on their border of course.
Thanks again,
Joshua
I don’t think there is a reason to designate a monarch as “high king” if there is no need to distinguish him from other kings, but there is historical precedent for titles being retained after their original purpose has ended. This question devolves into a “But if …” kind of state of reasoning. I don’t think it can be resolved better, unless there are some notes or essays I haven’t seen that deal with the title.
Fair enough, and I’m certainly not claiming to know ad much about you on the topic. I was merely proposing the possibility that a sort of “sub-realms” existed within Arnor during the High Kings of Arnor period that were a sort of precursor to the realms of Arthedain, Cardolan, and Rhudaur later on. You yourself have hypothesized the existence of princely houses in Arnor in the article I referenced above and a couple of others.
So IF, and I can’t truly support this, but if such regions and the like existed, then it would seem that High King may have been a title used within Arnor over the regions within Arnor. Since no king claimed to be just King of Arnor until much later in history, when heirs of Isildur had died out in the other regions, it is possible. That’s all.
I’m not disagreeing with you. I just don’t have anything from Tolkien that directly agrees with the idea. As you’ve seen, I’ve always wondered where the subdivisions for Arthedain, Cardolan, and Rhudaur came from. We have scattered pieces of information about them. I cannot rule out your hypothesis about the “High Kingship”. Tolkien often added his own twists to historical precedents, which has always made analysis of the cultures of Middle-earth very tricky and exceptionally fun.
It has been a while since I’ve read anything on this topic. Your post is a good reminder of the richness of Tolkien’s writing, despite some missing information. Reading these place- and person-names makes me want to give my Silmarillion on CD a listen. Love hearing Martin Shaw’s reading of it.
I wonder how much there’s not a more direct link to be made between High-Kingship of Noldor-in-Exile, and the High-Kingship of Dunedeans-in Exile.
You made the right assumption, in my opinion, to present the former as a litterary and chronological precedent to the latter; but giving that Germanic kingship (or rather, Scandinavian kingship in the early Christianized period) had a tendency to pile up titles and title succession rather than individual succession (for exemple,when the kingship over Danes and Norses was assumed by a same man, even if the successor was chosen only by Danes afterwards, they often claimed or assumed kingship over Norses).
In the early Third Age, the northern kingdom mostly followed the boundaries or the sphere of influence of Gil Galad kingdom : I think, without having much litterary evidence to provide, that we could assume that Dunadans-in-Exile in the North used the high-king title as well to enforce the idea they were replacing/suceeding the Noldo high-kingship on the Mens of Eriador.
If Men of Eriador had something similar to the historical germanic population, such passation of claim/title/power could have been relatively convincing for them : I’d consider, in this case, sort of translatio regnii between Noldo and Dunadan which is, after all, fitting the theme of LotR, passing of Elders and rise of Youngers, not just as a matter of “evolution”, but as transmission.
Hi Michael,
Tolkien uses the term ‘High King’ (and ‘high-kingship’) for more persons than the four High Kings of the Noldor in Beleriand/Middle-earth, Thingol, and the ten High Kings of Arnor that you mention.
In the ‘Prologue’ to ‹The Lord of the Rings› mention is made to ‘the High King at Fornost’, twice. In division 1 this is explicitly said to be Argeleb II of Arthedain, in division 3 it is used in general for the Kings of Arthedain from who the Hobbits held the Shire. It seems that when the Kings of Arthedain claimed kingship over all of Arnor after the line of Isildur had died out in Cardolan and Rhudaur — and prefixed their names with ‘Ar(a)-’ in token of that — they also revived the title of High King that had gone with the kingship of Arnor up to and including Eärendur. There is some possible confirmation of this in ‘The Heirs of Elendil’ in ‹Peoples of Middle-earth› when in describing the taking of the prefix it is translated as ‘high king’.
In the formula with which Pippin is told to swear fealty to Denethor II as Steward of Gondor in Book 5 chapter 1, Denethor is described as ‘the Steward of the High King’, which suggests that the Kings of Gondor had also at some point taken to using the title.
In chapters 5 and 6 of the ‘Quenta Silmarillion’ in ‹The Silmarillion› Ingwë is described as ‘the High King of all the Elves’.
In chapter 9 of the ‘Quenta Silmarillion’ Manwë is addressed (indirectly, by Fëanor) as ‘High King of Arda’.
And finally, in ‘Aldarion and Erendis’ in ‹Unfinished Tales›, Gil-galad’s letter to Tar-Meneldur is inscribed ‘to be delivered to the High King at Armenelos in person’. So it seems that the Kings of Númenor were using this title as well.
In the case of Manwë and Ingwë a clear case can be made that their kingship was superior or senior to that of other kings. In the case of Númenor, Gondor and Arthedain that is more difficult. In the case of Arthedain perhaps the reasoning that Joshua Harman developed, with Cardolan and Rhudaur as junior or inferior kingdoms/principalities, could supply an explanation. The Kings of Gondor could have regarded Rhovanion and possibly Dorwinion as junior or subordinate kingdoms. And as for Númenor, the epithet ‘Kings of Men’, applied to the Númenóreans and the Dúnedain as a whole in various places in ‹The Lord of the Rings› (book 2 chapter 2, book 5 chapter 4, appendix A I i), the ‘Akallabêth’ and ‘Of the Rings of Power’, could sufficiently explain that the Kings of Númenor saw themselves as superior to any kingship of Men in Middle-earth.
That is a mighty fine list you assembled there.
The High King to which Peregrin swore allegoance to the Steward of could also be carry-over terminology from oaths sworn to Isildur or Elendil. After all, Eorl also swore the friendship of the Eotheod to Gondor at the tomb of Elendil in ‘Cirion and Eorl’, so the Stewards still held the old High Kings of the Dúnedain in high esteem.